Master Current Affairs with Topic-Based MCQs 3 August 2024

Master Current Affairs with Topic-Based MCQs

Money Bill and Finance Act Issues

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the enactment of Money Bills?

A. Article 110

B. Article 109

C. Article 112

D. Article 108

Answer: B. Article 109

Explanation: Article 109 of the Indian Constitution states that Money Bills are to be enacted as law with only the Lok Sabha’s approval. The Rajya Sabha may make recommendations on the Bill, but these suggestions are not binding on the Lok Sabha.

2. What was the key issue in the Rojer Mathew v South Indian Bank Ltd case of 2019?

A. Whether the Finance Act, 2017, was passed correctly.

B. Whether the speaker’s decision was beyond judicial review.

C. Whether Aadhaar Act met the conditions of a Money Bill.

D. Whether the Finance Bill could include amendments to substantive laws.

Answer: B. Whether the speaker’s decision was beyond judicial review.

Explanation: In Rojer Mathew v South Indian Bank Ltd (2019), the Supreme Court stated that the speaker’s decision to certify a bill as a Money Bill was not beyond judicial review, although the scope for such review was extremely restricted.

3. Which Finance Act was passed as a Money Bill, sparking controversy regarding its content and scope?

A. Finance Act, 2016

B. Finance Act, 2017

C. Finance Act, 2018

D. Finance Act, 2019

Answer: B. Finance Act, 2017

Explanation: The Finance Act, 2017, was certified as a Money Bill and passed, but it included sweeping changes to the functioning of tribunals, which raised concerns about the scope of what constitutes a Money Bill under Article 110(1).

4. According to the judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2018), which section of the Aadhaar Act was related to subsidies, benefits, and services?

A. Section 6

B. Section 7

C. Section 8

D. Section 9

Answer: B. Section 7

Explanation: Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act dealt with subsidies, benefits, and services for which expenditure was to be incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, thus meeting the conditions of a Money Bill.

5. What was a major issue with the Finance Act, 2019, passed as a Money Bill?

A. It included provisions on subsidies and benefits.

B. It made amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.

C. It dealt with the presentation of the Union Budget.

D. It altered the qualifications for appointment to tribunals.

Answer: B. It made amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.

Explanation: The Finance Act, 2019, included far-reaching amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, through a Money Bill, raising concerns about the validity of making such substantive law changes via a Money Bill.

6. What did Chief Justice Chandrachud emphasize about the role of the Rajya Sabha concerning Money Bills?

A. The Rajya Sabha should have equal power as the Lok Sabha.

B. Potential differences between the two houses cannot be resolved by ignoring the Rajya Sabha.

C. The Rajya Sabha should be able to veto Money Bills.

D. The Lok Sabha’s decisions on Money Bills are final.

Answer: B. Potential differences between the two houses cannot be resolved by ignoring the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation: Chief Justice Chandrachud emphasized that the Rajya Sabha is an essential constitutive unit of the federal structure of the Constitution, and differences between the two houses cannot be resolved by ignoring the Rajya Sabha’s role.

7. What does Article 110(1) of the Indian Constitution describe?

A. The procedures for passing a Finance Bill.

B. The definition of what constitutes a Money Bill.

C. The process for enacting a Money Bill into law.

D. The role of the Rajya Sabha in legislative procedures.

Answer: B. The definition of what constitutes a Money Bill.

Explanation: Article 110(1) of the Indian Constitution defines what constitutes a Money Bill, including matters such as the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxes, and other related financial matters.

Atmospheric Rivers

1. What are atmospheric rivers?

A. Long, narrow bands of water vapour in the atmosphere

B. Underground rivers flowing beneath the Earth's surface

C. High-altitude wind currents carrying dust particles

D. Tidal waves in the ocean

Answer: A. Long, narrow bands of water vapour in the atmosphere

Explanation: Atmospheric rivers are long, narrow bands of water vapour in the atmosphere that transport moisture from the tropics to other regions, often leading to significant weather-related impacts when they make landfall.

2. Which well-known atmospheric river brings moisture from the tropics near Hawaii to the U.S. West Coast?

A. Amazon Stream

B. Gulf Stream

C. Pineapple Express

D. Arctic Blast

Answer: C. Pineapple Express

Explanation: The Pineapple Express is a strong atmospheric river that transports moisture from the tropics near Hawaii to the U.S. West Coast, often causing heavy rainfall and flooding.

3. What are the main characteristics of atmospheric rivers?

A. Circular shape, light wind speeds, low humidity

B. Long and narrow shape, high wind speeds, very thick integrated water vapour

C. Short and wide shape, moderate wind speeds, low water vapour

D. Irregular shape, low wind speeds, moderate humidity

Answer: B. Long and narrow shape, high wind speeds, very thick integrated water vapour

Explanation: Atmospheric rivers have a long and narrow shape, with widths of no more than 400 to 500 km and lengths extending for thousands of kilometres. They also have high wind speeds of greater than 12.5 meters per second in the lowest 2 km and contain very thick integrated water vapour.

4. How do atmospheric rivers contribute to heavy rainfall?

A. By creating high-pressure zones over oceans

B. By increasing sea surface temperatures

C. By causing convergence and vertical uplift of moisture-laden air

D. By forming tropical cyclones

Answer: C. By causing convergence and vertical uplift of moisture-laden air

Explanation: Atmospheric rivers cause heavy rainfall when they make landfall, as the convergence and vertical uplift within an atmospheric river forces the moisture-laden air to rise, especially when it encounters mountainous terrain.

5. What percentage of flooding damages in the Western USA is linked to atmospheric rivers?

A. 30%

B. 50%

C. 70%

D. Over 80%

Answer: D. Over 80%

Explanation: More than 80% of all flooding damages in the Western USA are associated with atmospheric rivers, highlighting their significant impact on extreme precipitation and severe flooding in mid-latitude, westerly coastal regions.

6. What was the impact of atmospheric rivers in the Leh region of Jammu and Kashmir in 2010?

A. Severe drought

B. Cloudburst followed by flash floods and mudslides

C. Heatwave

D. Tornado

Answer: B. Cloudburst followed by flash floods and mudslides

Explanation: In 2010, Leh in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir experienced a cloudburst, which led to heavy rains, triggering flash floods and mudslides, demonstrating the significant weather-related impacts of atmospheric rivers in India.

7. How can atmospheric rivers benefit regions despite their hazardous effects?

A. By reducing sea levels

B. By providing essential precipitation for water supply

C. By increasing desertification

D. By decreasing temperatures

Answer: B. By providing essential precipitation for water supply

Explanation: Atmospheric rivers can be beneficial by providing precipitation, which is essential for water supply and resources. For example, they provide an average of 30–50% of annual precipitation on the west coast of the USA and have ended many droughts in the region.

8. What should be prioritized to deal with the challenges of atmospheric rivers?

A. Building more dams

B. Improving atmospheric forecasting systems

C. Increasing urbanization in coastal areas

D. Reducing agricultural activities

Answer: B. Improving atmospheric forecasting systems

Explanation: To deal with the challenges of atmospheric rivers, it is crucial to improve atmospheric forecasting systems to better understand their intensity, duration, and landfall locations, providing valuable information for residents and emergency responders.

9. What is the relationship between atmospheric rivers and climate change?

A. Climate change has no impact on atmospheric rivers

B. Climate change weakens atmospheric rivers

C. Climate change strengthens atmospheric rivers

D. Climate change reduces the frequency of atmospheric rivers

Answer: C. Climate change strengthens atmospheric rivers

Explanation: There is a direct relationship between the intensity of atmospheric rivers and climate change, with atmospheric rivers becoming stronger as climate patterns change. Reducing global greenhouse gas emissions is essential to stabilizing the global climate system and minimizing their impacts.

10. During the monsoon season between 1951 and 2020, how many atmospheric rivers did India experience?

A. 274

B. 374

C. 474

D. 574

Answer: D. 574

Explanation: A study found that between 1951 and 2020, India experienced 574 atmospheric rivers during the monsoon season, with their frequency and intensity increasing due to climate change.

Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak and Related Provisions

1. What is the primary reason for replacing the British Era Aircraft Act of 1934 with the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak?

A. To reduce the number of amendments

B. To align with international civil aviation conventions

C. To modernize the aviation sector and streamline processes

D. To increase the powers of the Central Government

Answer: C. To modernize the aviation sector and streamline processes

Explanation: The need to replace the Aircraft Act of 1934 arises from the necessity to eliminate outdated provisions, simplify processes, and modernize the aviation sector, addressing the design, manufacture, and maintenance of aircraft and related equipment.

2. Which provisions have been removed from the definition of aircraft in the revised bill?

A. Drones and UAVs

B. Balloons and gliders

C. Flying taxis and electronic gliders

D. Helicopters and seaplanes

Answer: B. Balloons and gliders

Explanation: The revised definition of aircraft in the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak removes balloons and gliders, focusing on modern aviation needs.

3. What is the significance of empowering the Central Government to make rules under the new bill?

A. To allow the government to impose new taxes on airlines

B. To ensure the implementation of international civil aviation conventions

C. To increase the Central Government’s control over state aviation authorities

D. To regulate the use of private jets

Answer: B. To ensure the implementation of international civil aviation conventions

Explanation: The Central Government is empowered to make rules to implement international civil aviation conventions, such as the Chicago Convention (1944) and the International Telecommunication Convention (1932).

4. Which aviation authorities are given enhanced powers under the new bill?

A. Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)

B. Airport Authority of India (AAI) and International Air Transport Association (IATA)

C. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

D. Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of External Affairs

Answer: A. Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)

Explanation: The new bill grants increased powers to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS), along with the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB).

5. What emergency powers are granted to the Central Government under the new bill?

A. To seize private aircraft for government use

B. To detain aircraft for public safety

C. To ban international flights

D. To control air traffic over Indian airspace

Answer: B. To detain aircraft for public safety

Explanation: The Central Government is empowered to issue orders in emergencies for public safety, such as detaining aircraft.

6. How does the bill support the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative?

A. By promoting the use of Hindi in aviation

B. By regulating the import of aircraft parts

C. By regulating aircraft design and manufacturing domestically

D. By increasing taxes on foreign airlines

Answer: C. By regulating aircraft design and manufacturing domestically

Explanation: The bill aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by regulating aircraft design and manufacturing within India, expanding coverage to include modern aviation technologies like drones, UAVs, flying taxis, and electronic gliders.

7. What was one of the main oppositions to the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak?

A. The increased powers of the Central Government

B. The use of the Hindi name

C. The removal of balloons and gliders from the definition

D. The emergency powers granted to the Central Government

Answer: B. The use of the Hindi name

Explanation: Some parliamentarians opposed the Hindi name of the bill, arguing it violated Articles 348 1B, 120, and 340 of the Constitution, which mandate parliamentary bills to be in English. They cited the difficulty for South Indians to pronounce the Hindi name.

8. What assurance did the government provide regarding the language of the bill’s text?

A. It would be available in both Hindi and English

B. It would remain in English

C. It would be translated into regional languages

D. It would use simple Hindi terms

Answer: B. It would remain in English

Explanation: The government assured that the bill’s text remains in English, despite its Hindi name.

9. What is the Chicago Convention, mentioned in the context of the new bill?

A. An agreement on international maritime law

B. An international treaty on civil aviation established in 1944

C. A global convention on environmental protection

D. A trade agreement among North American countries

Answer: B. An international treaty on civil aviation established in 1944

Explanation: The Chicago Convention, also known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation, is an international treaty established in 1944. It sets out the core principles for international air transport and created the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).

10. How many freedoms of air does the Chicago Convention recognize, and how many are officially recognized by the ICAO?

A. Seven freedoms, with four officially recognized

B. Nine freedoms, with five officially recognized

C. Five freedoms, with three officially recognized

D. Ten freedoms, with six officially recognized

Answer: B. Nine freedoms, with five officially recognized

Explanation: The Chicago Convention recognizes nine freedoms of air, with the first five being officially recognized by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). These freedoms grant countries the right to fly over, land in, and transport passengers and cargo between territories.

Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) Dam

1. On which river is the Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) Dam built?

A. Godavari

B. Krishna

C. Kaveri

D. Tungabhadra

Answer: C. Kaveri

Explanation: The Krishna Raja Sagara Dam is built on the Kaveri River, which is one of the major rivers in southern India, flowing through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

2. In which Indian state is the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam located?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Kerala

D. Karnataka

Answer: D. Karnataka

Explanation: The KRS Dam is located in the southern state of Karnataka. It is an important landmark for the state, contributing significantly to its agriculture, water supply, and hydroelectric power generation.

3. Who played a significant role in the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam?

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Sir M. Visvesvaraya

C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: B. Sir M. Visvesvaraya

Explanation: Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a renowned engineer and statesman, was instrumental in the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam. His engineering skills and innovative ideas were key to the successful completion of the dam.

4. What are the primary purposes of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam?

A. Flood control and navigation

B. Irrigation, water supply, and hydroelectric power generation

C. Fishing and tourism

D. Transportation and recreation

Answer: B. Irrigation, water supply, and hydroelectric power generation

Explanation: The primary purposes of the KRS Dam are to provide irrigation water to farmlands, supply drinking water, and generate hydroelectric power, thus playing a crucial role in the region's economy and infrastructure.

5. Which famous gardens are located near the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam?

A. Lal Bagh Gardens

B. Brindavan Gardens

C. Mughal Gardens

D. Hanging Gardens

Answer: B. Brindavan Gardens

Explanation: The Brindavan Gardens, located near the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam, are a popular tourist attraction known for their beautiful terraced lawns, fountains, and illuminated gardens.

6. What is a significant impact of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam on the regional dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?

A. It resolved the water-sharing dispute completely.

B. It has been a point of contention in the water-sharing dispute.

C. It diverted the Kaveri River away from Tamil Nadu.

D. It only supplies water to Tamil Nadu.

Answer: B. It has been a point of contention in the water-sharing dispute.

Explanation: The KRS Dam plays a significant role in the water-sharing dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu over the Kaveri River waters, with both states having competing demands for the river's resources.

7. When was the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam constructed?

A. Early 19th century

B. Mid 19th century

C. Early 20th century

D. Late 20th century

Answer: C. Early 20th century

Explanation: The Krishna Raja Sagara Dam was constructed in the early 20th century, during the rule of the Wodeyar dynasty of the Kingdom of Mysore, and it was completed in 1931.

8. Which engineering feat is associated with the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam?

A. World’s longest dam

B. First dam in India

C. A model for modern engineering techniques

D. Largest earthen dam in the world

Answer: C. A model for modern engineering techniques

Explanation: The Krishna Raja Sagara Dam is noted as a model for modern engineering techniques of its time, particularly for its innovative design and construction methods spearheaded by Sir M. Visvesvaraya.

9. Which dynasty was ruling the Kingdom of Mysore during the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam?

A. Chola Dynasty

B. Wodeyar Dynasty

C. Vijayanagara Empire

D. Maratha Empire

Answer: B. Wodeyar Dynasty

Explanation: The Krishna Raja Sagara Dam was constructed during the rule of the Wodeyar dynasty of the Kingdom of Mysore, which was a significant period of development in the region.

10. How does the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam contribute to the local tourism industry?

A. By offering water sports activities

B. By hosting international conferences

C. Through the Brindavan Gardens and scenic views

D. By providing luxury cruises on the Kaveri River

Answer: C. Through the Brindavan Gardens and scenic views

Explanation: The Krishna Raja Sagara Dam contributes to the local tourism industry primarily through the Brindavan Gardens, which are renowned for their scenic beauty, musical fountains, and illuminated night-time displays.

Pandemic Treaty and Related Issues

1. What is the definition of a pandemic according to the World Health Organization (WHO)?

A. A new disease with limited spread in a small region

B. A new disease that spreads beyond expectations worldwide

C. An existing disease that spreads rapidly in a specific country

D. A disease with a high fatality rate regardless of its spread

Answer: B. A new disease that spreads beyond expectations worldwide

Explanation: According to the WHO, a pandemic is declared when a new disease for which people do not have immunity spreads around the world beyond expectations.

2. What is the primary objective of the proposed Pandemic Treaty?

A. To limit international travel during pandemics

B. To strengthen global pandemic preparedness and reduce inequities

C. To establish new quarantine protocols

D. To replace the International Health Regulations (IHR)

Answer: B. To strengthen global pandemic preparedness and reduce inequities

Explanation: The primary objective of the proposed Pandemic Treaty is to fortify global pandemic preparedness, implement mechanisms for prevention, and reduce inequities that were highlighted during the COVID-19 pandemic.

3. Which aspect is NOT covered by the Pandemic Treaty?

A. Data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses

B. Equitable distribution of vaccines and drugs

C. Establishing new global trade agreements

D. Related research throughout the world

Answer: C. Establishing new global trade agreements

Explanation: The Pandemic Treaty covers data sharing, genome sequencing of emerging viruses, equitable distribution of vaccines and drugs, and related research but does not deal with establishing new global trade agreements.

4. What was a significant development during the 77th World Health Assembly (WHA)?

A. Complete rejection of the Pandemic Treaty

B. Introduction of a new category for urgent international response, a Pandemic Emergency (PE)

C. Reduction in the powers of the World Health Organization (WHO)

D. Agreement to eliminate the International Health Regulations (IHR)

Answer: B. Introduction of a new category for urgent international response, a Pandemic Emergency (PE)

Explanation: During the 77th WHA, a significant development was the introduction of a new category for urgent international response called a Pandemic Emergency (PE).

5. What is the 'Peace clause' in the context of the Pandemic Treaty negotiations?

A. It mandates countries to avoid conflicts during pandemics

B. It requires respect for TRIPS flexibilities and discourages pressuring countries against their use

C. It establishes new peacekeeping forces for health emergencies

D. It enforces international sanctions during health crises

Answer: B. It requires respect for TRIPS flexibilities and discourages pressuring countries against their use

Explanation: The 'Peace clause' requires member states to respect the use of TRIPS flexibilities and not exercise any direct or indirect pressure to discourage the use of such flexibilities.

6. What is a major challenge faced by LMICs (Low and Middle-Income Countries) in the context of the Pandemic Treaty?

A. Excessive financial resources

B. Overabundance of medical supplies

C. Unfunded mandates and additional burdens on resources

D. Lack of international cooperation

Answer: C. Unfunded mandates and additional burdens on resources

Explanation: LMICs view certain mandates under the Pandemic Treaty, such as One Health, as unfunded and imposing additional burdens on their already strained resources.

7. What role is the proposed Conference of Parties (COP) expected to play in the Pandemic Treaty?

A. To replace the World Health Organization (WHO)

B. To ensure the immediate availability of vaccines

C. To monitor and evaluate the implementation and functioning of the treaty

D. To provide funding for global health initiatives

Answer: C. To monitor and evaluate the implementation and functioning of the treaty

Explanation: The proposed Conference of Parties (COP) is expected to play a crucial role in taking stock of the Pandemic Agreement's implementation and reviewing its functioning every five years.

8. Why is the transfer of technology significant in the context of the Pandemic Treaty?

A. To increase export restrictions on medical products

B. To ensure diverse manufacturing capacities globally and reduce reliance on high-income countries

C. To enforce strict intellectual property protections

D. To centralize global health manufacturing in one region

Answer: B. To ensure diverse manufacturing capacities globally and reduce reliance on high-income countries

Explanation: The transfer of technology is significant to ensure diverse manufacturing capacities globally, enabling LMICs to maintain self-sufficiency and reducing reliance on high-income countries.

9. What amendments were agreed upon at the 77th World Health Assembly regarding the International Health Regulations (IHR)?

A. Introduction of new quarantine protocols

B. Enhancements to prepare for and respond to Public Health Emergencies of International Concern (PHEIC)

C. Reduction of the scope of IHR

D. Removal of all health product regulations

Answer: B. Enhancements to prepare for and respond to Public Health Emergencies of International Concern (PHEIC)

Explanation: The amendments to the IHR aim to enhance countries' ability to prepare for and respond to Public Health Emergencies of International Concern (PHEIC) and ensure equitable access to health products during health emergencies.

10. How does the Pandemic Treaty aim to address the public-private sector gap in health investments?

A. By nationalizing all health industries

B. By mobilizing nation-states to agree on common metrics for health investments

C. By reducing health investments in LMICs

D. By creating exclusive public health institutions

Answer: B. By mobilizing nation-states to agree on common metrics for health investments

Explanation: The Pandemic Treaty aims to mobilize nation-states to agree on a set of common metrics related to health investments, which should aim to reduce the public-private sector gap.