Master your Daily Current affairs - 26th Aug
1. What is mass wasting, and what causes it?
A) The slow movement of tectonic plates, caused by the Earth's core
B) The movement of rock and soil downslope under the influence of gravity, caused by factors such as rapid snow melt, intense rainfall, and earthquakes
C) The erosion of coastal areas due to sea level rise
D) The deposition of sediments in river deltas, caused by flowing water
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2. Which of the following is the most common trigger for mass-wasting events?
A) Volcanic eruptions
B) Earthquakes
C) Excessive precipitation
D) Human activities
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3. What are the different types of mass-wasting events classified by?
A) The size of the debris and the location of the slope
B) The speed of movement and the time of year
C) The type of movement and the material involved
D) The temperature and altitude of the affected area
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4. What class of warship is INS Mumbai, and when was it commissioned into the Indian Navy?
A) Kolkata-class, 2010
B) Delhi-class, 2001
C) Rajput-class, 1988
D) Shivalik-class, 2012
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5. Which notable naval operations has INS Mumbai been involved in?
A) Op Meghdoot, Op Blue Star, and Op Vijay
B) Op Parakram, Op Sukoon, and Op Rahat
C) Op Pawan, Op Cactus, and Op Rakshak
D) Op Trident, Op Python, and Op Vijay
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6. What is the displacement and speed capability of INS Mumbai?
A) 3000 tons, 25 knots
B) 5000 tons, 20 knots
C) Over 6500 tons, 32 knots
D) 4000 tons, 28 knots
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7. What is the primary purpose of a polygraph test in an investigation?
A) To determine the physical health of a suspect
B) To evaluate the credibility of a suspect by measuring physiological responses
C) To provide a definitive proof of guilt
D) To assess a suspect’s memory and cognitive abilities
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8. According to the Supreme Court of India’s judgment in Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010), under what condition can a polygraph test be administered?
A) It can be administered without the accused's knowledge.
B) It can only be administered with the accused’s consent.
C) It must be conducted immediately after the arrest.
D) It must be conducted in public view.
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9. What guidelines must be followed during the administration of a polygraph test as per the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
A) The guidelines issued by the NHRC in 2000 must be strictly adhered to, and the accused’s consent must be documented before a judicial magistrate.
B) The test can be administered without the need for any guidelines.
C) The test must be conducted by a panel of judges.
D) The results of the polygraph test are automatically admissible in court without any conditions.
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10. What is Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) primarily characterized by?
A) Mild fever and joint pain
B) High-grade fever, convulsions, and multi-organ dysfunction
C) Chronic fatigue and muscle weakness
D) Skin rashes and itching
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11. Which pathogen was identified as a significant cause of the AES cases in Gujarat during the recent outbreak?
A) Dengue Virus
B) Chandipura Vesiculovirus (CHPV)
C) Malaria Parasite
D) Influenza Virus
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12. Why is diagnosing Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) particularly challenging?
A) It only affects a specific age group
B) The symptoms are unique to AES and easily identifiable
C) The symptoms of AES are similar to those of other viral infections like Japanese Encephalitis and Meningitis
D) It does not have any visible symptoms
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13. What is Sonoluminescence?
A) The emission of sound waves when light is absorbed by a liquid
B) The emission of a brief flash of light from small gas bubbles in a liquid when exposed to intense sound waves
C) The absorption of sound by solid materials
D) The reflection of light off a liquid surface
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14. What natural organism exhibits a similar effect to sonoluminescence?
A) Firefly
B) Electric eel
C) Pistol shrimp
D) Glowworm
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15. What is the potential temperature inside the bubble during the contraction phase of sonoluminescence?
A) A few hundred kelvins
B) A few thousand kelvins
C) Room temperature
D) Absolute zero
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16. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for a language to be declared as classical by the Indian government?
A) The language must have a documented history of at least 1,500-2,000 years.
B) The classical language and its literature should be distinct from its modern form.
C) The language should possess a body of ancient literature highly regarded as cultural heritage.
D) The language must have borrowed its literary tradition from another speech community.
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17. Which language was the first to be recognized as a classical language in India?
A) Sanskrit
B) Tamil
C) Telugu
D) Kannada
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18. What is one of the benefits provided by the Ministry of Education for a language designated as classical?
A) Free translation services for all documents in the language
B) Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in the Classical Language
C) Tax exemptions for scholars studying the language
D) Mandatory inclusion in school curriculums across India
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19. What is the primary objective of India's National Quantum Mission (NQM)?
A) To develop large-scale classical supercomputers
B) To pioneer the development of intermediate-scale quantum computers and advance quantum technologies
C) To replace all existing computing infrastructure with quantum systems
D) To establish quantum computing centers only in private corporations
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20. Which of the following is NOT a key vertical under India's National Quantum Mission (NQM)?
A) Quantum computing
B) Quantum communication
C) Quantum measurement and sensing
D) Quantum agriculture
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21. What are qubits, and how do they differ from conventional bits used in classical computing?
A) Qubits are the basic units of information in quantum computing, allowing coherent superposition of ones and zeros, unlike conventional bits that can only represent one state at a time.
B) Qubits are slower and less efficient than conventional bits.
C) Qubits are used only for storage, while bits are used for processing information.
D) Qubits are identical to conventional bits but are used in a different computing environment.
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22. Which river feeds the Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
A) Indus River
B) Chenab River
C) Jhelum River
D) Ravi River
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23. What is the significance of Wular Lake in terms of fish production?
A) It accounts for 30 percent of the total fish production within the state.
B) It is not significant for fish production.
C) It accounts for 60 percent of the total fish production within the state.
D) It only supports marine fish species.
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24. Which of the following statements about Wular Lake is TRUE?
A) It is the largest saltwater lake in India.
B) It was designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention in 1990.
C) It is located at an altitude of 2,500 meters.
D) The lake does not support any bird species.
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25. Under which Act was the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) constituted?
A) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
B) The Indian Penal Code, 1860
C) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985
D) The Customs Act, 1962
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26. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)?
A) Coordination of actions under various laws related to narcotics and psychotropic substances
B) Implementation of international obligations against illicit drug trafficking
C) Enforcement of tax laws and income tax regulations
D) Collection and dissemination of intelligence related to drug trafficking
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27. Where is the headquarters of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) located?
A) Mumbai
B) Kolkata
C) Delhi
D) Chennai
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28. During which geological period did the newly discovered dinosaur species Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus roam the Earth?
A) Triassic period
B) Jurassic period
C) Cretaceous period
D) Devonian period
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29. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus dinosaur?
A) It had wings for flight.
B) It possessed an extremely protruding ‘eyebrow’ on the postorbital bone, indicating the presence of a horn.
C) It was herbivorous with a long neck.
D) It had a tail equipped with spikes for defense.
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30. To which dinosaur group does Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus belong?
A) Sauropodomorpha
B) Ceratopsidae
C) Metriacanthosauridae
D) Ankylosauridae
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